A. Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classical sense. B. Software doesn’t “ wear out ”. C. Software can be custom built or custom builD. D. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
2. Compilers, Editors software come under which type of software?
A. System software B. Application software C. Scientific software D. None of the above.
ANSWER: System software
3. Software Engineering is defined as systematic, disciplined and quantifiable approach for the development, operation and maintenance of software.
A. True B. False
ANSWER: True
4. RAD Software process model stands for _____ .
A. Rapid Application Development. B. Relative Application Development. C. Rapid Application Design. D. Recent Application Development.
ANSWER: Rapid Application Development.
5. Software project management comprises of a number of activities, which contains _________.
A. Project planning B. Scope management C. Project estimation D. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
6. COCOMO stands for ______ .
A. COnsumed COst MOdel B. COnstructive COst MOdel C. COmmon COntrol MOdel D. COmposition COst MOdel
ANSWER: COnstructive COst Model
7. Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification (SRS. document?
A. Functional Requirement. B. Nonfunctional Requirement. C. Goals of implementation. D. Algorithm for software implementation.
ANSWER: Algorithm for software implementation.
8. What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?
A. Spiral model B. Big Bang model C. V-model D. Waterfall model
ANSWER: Waterfall model
9. Which of the following is the understanding of software product limitations, learning system related problems or changes to be done in existing systems beforehand, identifying and addressing the impact of project on organization and personnel etc?
A. Software Design B. Feasibility Study C. Requirement Gathering D. System Analysis
ANSWER: System Analysis
10. Which design identifies the software as a system with many components interacting with each other?
A. Architectural design B. High-level design C. Detailed design D. Both B & C
ANSWER: Architectural design
11. Software consists of ______ .
A. Set of instructions + operating procedures B. Programs + documentation + operating procedures C. Programs + hardware manuals D. Set of programs
12. Which is the most important feature of spiral model?
A. Quality management B. Risk management C. Performance management D. Efficiency management
ANSWER: Risk management
13. If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS. has only one interpretation, SRS is said to be correct _____ .
A. Unambiguous B. Consistent C. Verifiable D. None of the above
ANSWER: Unambiguous
14. Which is not a step of Requirement Engineering?
A. Requirements elicitation B. Requirements analysis C. Requirements design D. Requirements documentation
ANSWER: Requirements design
15. FAST stands for ________ .
A. Functional Application Specification Technique B. Fast Application Specification Technique C. Facilitated Application Specification Technique D. None of the above
16. The level at which the software uses scarce resources is ______ .
A. Reliability B. Efficiency C. Portability D. All of the above
ANSWER: Efficiency
17. Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment is called __________ .
A. Adaptive maintenance B. Corrective maintenance C. Perfective maintenance D. Preventive maintenance
ANSWER: Adaptive maintenance
18. If every requirement can be checked by a cost-effective process, then the SRS is _________ .
A. Verifiable B. Traceable C. Modifiable D. Complete
ANSWER: Verifiable
19. Aggregation represents ______ .
A. is_a relationship B. part_of relationship C. composed_of relationship D. none of above
ANSWER: composed_of relationship
20. If P is risk probability, L is loss, then Risk Exposure (RE. is computed as_____ .
A. RE = P/L B. RE = P + L C. RE = P*L D. RE = 2* P *L
ANSWER: RE = P*L
21. Number of clauses used in ISO 9001 to specify quality system requirements are _____ .
A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 28
ANSWER: 20
22. ER model shows the _______ .
A. Static view B. Functional view C. Dynamic view D. All the above
ANSWER: Static view
23. IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for _______ .
A. Software Requirement Specification B. Software design C. Testing D. Both (A. and (B)
ANSWER: Software Requirement Specification
24. One of the fault base testing techniques is ______ .
A. Unit Testing B. Beta Testing C. Stress Testing D. Mutation Testing
ANSWER: Mutation Testing
25. If the objects focus on the problem domain, then we are concerned with ______.
A. Object Oriented Analysis B. Object Oriented Design C. Object Oriented Analysis and Design D. None of the above
ANSWER: Object Oriented Analysis
26. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to:
i. Determine the test technique to be employed ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible. iv. Determine the cost of the project
A. ii is True; i, iii, iv and v are False B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false C. ii and iii are True; i, iv are False D. ii, iii and iv are True; i is false
ANSWER: i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
27. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase?
A. Creating test suites from the test cases B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools C. Comparing actual results D. Designing the Tests
ANSWER: Designing the Tests
28. The Test Cases Derived from use cases _______ .
A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system. B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system. C. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system. D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level.
ANSWER: Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.
29. What can static analysis NOT find?
A. The use of a variable before it has been defineD. B. Unreachable (“dead”. code. C. Memory leaks. D. Array bound violations.
ANSWER: Memory leaks.
30. Which plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team members will be developed ?
A. HR Plan B. Manager Plan C. Team Plan D. Staff Development Plan
ANSWER: Staff Development Plan
31. Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of _______ .
A. Acceptance testing B. Integration testing C. System Testing D. Unit testing
ANSWER: Acceptance testing
32. The model in which the requirements are implemented by its category is ______ .
A. Evolutionary Development Model B. Waterfall Model C. Prototyping D. Iterative Enhancement Model
ANSWER: Evolutionary Development Model
33. A COCOMO model is ________ .
A. Common Cost Estimation Model. B. Constructive Cost Estimation Model. C. Complete Cost Estimation Model. D. Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model
ANSWER: Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
34. SRD stands for _______ .
A. Software Requirements Definition B. Structured Requirements Definition C. Software Requirements Diagram D. Structured Requirements Diagram
ANSWER: Structured Requirements Definition
35. The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called _______ .
A. CASE Tools B. CAME tools C. CAQE tools D. CARE tools
ANSWER: CASE Tools
36. Which defect amplification model is used to illustrate the generation and detection of errors during the preliminary steps of a software engineering process?
A. Design B. Detailed design C. Coding D. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
37. Which method is used for evaluating the expression that passes the function as an argument?
A. Strict evaluation B. Recursion C. Calculus D. Pure functions
ANSWER: Strict evaluation
38. Which factors affect the probable consequences if a risk occur?
A. Risk avoidance B. Risk monitoring C. Risk timing D. Contingency planning
ANSWER: Risk timing
39. Staff turnover, poor communication with the customer are risks that are extrapolated from past experience are called _____ .
A. Business risks B. Predictable risks C. Project risks D. Technical risks
ANSWER: Predictable risks
40. Organization can have in-house inspection, direct involvement of users and release of beta version are few of them and it also includes usability, compatibility, user acceptance etC. is called ______ .
A. Task analysis B. GUI requirement gathering C. GUI design & implementation D. Testing
ANSWER: Testing
41. Which project is undertaken as a consequence of a specific customer request?
A. Concept development projects B. Application enhancement projects C. New application development projects D. Application maintenance projects
ANSWER: New application development projects
42. Requirement engineering process includes which of these steps?
A. Feasibility study B. Requirement Gathering C. Software Requirement specification & Validation D. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
43. Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that may cause an entire system to fall.
A. True B. False
ANSWER: True
44. Give the disadvantages of modularization.
A. Smaller components are easier to maintain B. Program can be divided based on functional aspects C. Desired level of abstraction can be brought in the program D. None of the above
ANSWER: None of the above
45. Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What are those four P’s?
A. People, performance, payment, product B. People, product, process, project C. People, product, performance, project D. All of the above.
ANSWER: People, product, process, project
46. Give the Real-world factors affecting maintenance Cost.
A. As technology advances, it becomes costly to maintain old software. B. The standard age of any software is considered up to 10 to 15 years. C. Most maintenance engineers are newbie and use trial and error method to rectify problem. D. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
47. Mention any two indirect measures of product.
A. Quality B. Efficiency C. Accuracy D. Both A and B e. Both B and C
ANSWER: Both A and B
48. Which testing is the re-execution of some subset of tests that have already been conducted to ensure the changes that are not propagated?
A. Unit testing B. Regression testing C. Integration testing D. Thread-based testing
ANSWER: Regression testing
49. State if the following are true for Project Management.
During Project Scope management, it is necessary to –
1. Define the scope 2. Decide its verification and control 3. Divide the project into various smaller parts for ease of management. 4. Verify the scope
A. True B. False
ANSWER: True
50. Software Requirement Specification (SRS. is also known as specification of _______.
A. White box testing B. Acceptance testing C. Integrated testing D. Black box testing
ANSWER: Black box testing
51. Which of the following is/are considered stakeholder in the software process?
A. Customers B. End-users C. Project managers D. All of the above.
Answer:All of the above.
52. Software components provide interfaces, which can be used to establish communication among different components.
A. Yes B. No
Answer: Yes
53. Which SDLC activity does the user initiates the request for a desired software product?
A. Requirement gathering B. Implementation C. Disposition D. Communication
Answer: Communication
54. In Risk management process what makes a note of all possible risks, that may occur in the project?
A. Manage B. Monitor C. Categorize D. Identification
Answer: Identification
55. What is a measure of how well a computer system facilities learning?
A. Usability B. Functionality C. Reliability D. None of the above
Answer: Usability
56. The process togather the software requirements from Client, Analyze and Document is known as ______ .
A. Requirement engineering process B. Requirement elicitation process C. User interface requirements D. Software system analyst
Answer: Requirement engineering process
57. Refinement is actually a process of elaboration.
A. True B. False
Answer: True
58. Who manages the effects of change throughout the software process?
A. Software project tracking and control B. Software configuration management C. Measurement D. Technical reviews
Answer: Software configuration management
59. When elements of module are grouped together that are executed sequentially in order to perform a task, is called ______ .
A. Procedural cohesion B. Logical cohesion C. Emporal cohesion D. Co-incidental cohesion
Answer: Procedural cohesion
60. Which coupling is also known as “Global coupling”?
A. Content coupling B. Stamp coupling C. Data coupling D. Common coupling
Answer: Common coupling
61. What is the detailed sequence of steps that describes the interaction between the user and the application?
A. Scenario scripts B. Support classes C. Key classes D. Subsystems
Answer: Scenario scripts
62. Which risks identify Potential Design, Implementation, Interface, Verification and Maintenance Problems?
A. Project risk B. Business risk C. Technical risk D. Schedule risk
Answer: Technical risk
63. Abbreviate the term BSS.
A. Box Structure Specification B. Box Statistical Specification C. Box Statistical System D. Box Structure Sampling
Answer: Box Structure Specification
64. What is the testing to ensure the WebApp properly interfaces with other applications or databases?
A. Compatibility B. Interoperability C. Performance D. Security
Answer: Interoperability
65. Which Variation control in the context of software engineering involves controlling variation?
A. Process applied B. Resources expended C. Product quality attributes D. All mentioned above
Answer: All mentioned above
66. Which classes represent data stores (e.g., a database. that will persist beyond the execution of the software?
A. Process classes B. System classes C. Persistent classes D. User interface classes
Answer: Persistent classes
67. Abbreviate the term CMMI.
A. Capability Maturity Model Integration B. Capability Model Maturity Integration C. Capability Maturity Model Instructions D. Capability Model Maturity Instructions
Answer: Capability Maturity Model Integration
68. First level of prototype is evaluated by ______ .
A. Developer B. Tester C. User D. System Analyst
Answer: User
69. Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?
A. Process B. Manufacturing C. Methods D. Tools
Answer: Manufacturing
70. Line of code(LOC. of the product comes under which type of measures?
A. Indirect measures B. Direct measures C. Coding D. None of the above.
Answer: Direct measures
71. What is the main aim of Software engineering?
A. Reliable software B. Cost effective software C. Reliable and cost effective software D. None of the above
Answer: Reliable and cost effective software
72. Choose the correct option according to the given statement.
Statement 1: Software is a physical rather than a logical system element. Statement 2: Computer software is the product that software engineers design and builD. Statement 3: Software is a logical rather than a physical system element. Statement 4: Software is a set of application programs that are built by software engineers.
A. Statement 1 and 2 are correct. B. Only Statement 2 and 3 are correct. C. Statement 2 and 3 and 4 are correct. D. All statements are correct
Answer: Statement 2 and 3 and 4 are correct.
73. You are working in CareerRide as a project manager. What will you do to minimize the risk of software failure?
A. Request a large budget B. You will increase the team size C. Track progress D. None of the above.
Answer: Track progress
74. Constantine suggests four “organizational paradigms” for software engineering teams. The best project team organizational model to use when handling extremely complex problems is ________ .
A. Random paradigm B. Open paradigm C. Synchronous paradigm D. Closed paradigm
Answer: Random paradigm
75. For the best Software model suitable for the project, in which of the phase the developers decide a roadmap for project plan?
A. Software Design B. System Analysis C. Coding D. Testing
Answer: System Analysis
76. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project?
A. Only performance. B. Only context. C. Information objectives, function, performance D. None of the above.
Answer: Information objectives, function, performance
77. Which level of sub-system is used of an application?
A. Application level B. Component level C. Modules level D. None of the above
Answer: Component level
78. SDLC is not a well-defined, structured sequence of stages in software engineering to develop the intended software product.
A. True B. False
Answer: False
79. In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W. Boehm?
A. Putnam model B. COCOMO C. Both A & B D. None of the above
Answer: COCOMO
80. From the following select the correct option that is used to display the available option for selection.
A. Check-box B. Text-box C. Button D. Radio-Button
Answer: Radio-Button
81. CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of ______ .
A. Develop the software. B. Improve the software process. C. Improve the testing process. D. All of the above.
Answer: Improve the software process.
82. Transformers is one of the broad category used to classify operations.
A. True B. False
Answer: False
83. The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called as ______ .
A. CASE Tools B. CAME tools C. CAQE tools D. CARE tools
Answer: CASE Tools
84. Which is not a step of Requirement Engineering?
A. Requirements elicitation B. Requirements analysis C. Requirements design D. Requirements documentation
Answer: Requirements design
85. Which of the level carries out goal, objective, work tasks, work products and other activities of the software process?
A. Performed B. INCOMPLETE C. Optimized D. Quantitatively Managed
Answer: Performed
86. If you have no clue of how to improve the process for the quality software which model is used?
A. A Continuous model B. A Staged model C. Both A & B D. None of the above
Answer: A Staged model
87. In Software validation, requirements can be checked against following conditions:
1. If they can be practically implemented 2. If they are valid and as per functionality and domain of software 3. If there are any ambiguities 4. If they are completed
A. True B. False
Answer: True
88. In OOD, the attributes(data variables. and methods( operation on the datA. are bundled together is called _______ .
A. Classes B. Objects C. Encapsulation D. Inheritance
Answer: Encapsulation
89. Which design defines the logical structure of each module and their interfaces that is used to communicate with other modules?
A. High-level designs B. Architectural designs C. Detailed design D. All mentioned above
Answer: Detailed design
90. Which tools are used in Implementation, Testing and Maintenance?
A. Upper case tools B. Lower case tools C. Integrated case tools D. None of the above
Answer: Lower case tools
91. Which tools are used for project planning, cost, effort estimation, project scheduling and resource planning?
A. Process modeling tools B. Project management tools C. Diagram tools D. Documentation tools
Answer: Project management tools
92. Which design deals with the implementation part in which it shows a system and its sub-systems in the previous two designs?
A. Architectural design B. High-level design C. Detailed design D. Both A & B
Answer: Detailed design
93. Modularization is a technique to divide a software system into multiple discrete and independent modules.
A. True B. False
Answer: True
94. What is the project and process level that provides the Quality Metric benefit?
A. Defect amplification B. Defect removal efficiency C. Measuring quality D. All mentioned above
Answer: Defect removal efficiency
95. Cohesion metrics and coupling metrics are metrics in which level of design?
A. User interface design B. Pattern-based design C. Architectural design D. Component-level design
Answer: Component-level design
96. Which condition defines the circumstances for a particular operation is valid?
A. Postcondition B. Precondition C. Invariant D. None of the above
Answer: Precondition
97. Which subsystem implements a repository that encompasses the following elements,
A. The publishing subsystem B. The management subsystem C. The collection subsystem D. None of the above
Answer: The management subsystem
98. Which is not a SQA activity?
A. Black box testing B. White box testing C. Integration testing D. Unit testing
Answer: White box testing
99. PAD is metric indicates the number of classes that can access another class attributes and a violation of encapsulation.
A. True B. False
Answer: True
100. Find out which phase is not available in SDLC?
A. Coding B. Testing C. Maintenance D. Abstraction
Answer: Abstraction
101. From the following, which software has been characterized by ‘Number Crunching’ Algorithms?
A. System software B. Artificial intelligence software C. Embedded software D. Engineering and scientific software
Answer: Engineering and scientific software
102. IEEE provides a standard as IEEE 830-1993. For which activity this standard is recommended standard?
A. Software requirement specification. B. Software design. C. Testing. D. Both a and b
Answer: Software requirement specification.
103. A generic process framework for software engineering encompasses five activities. What are those activities?
A. Communication, risk management, measurement, production, deployment. B. Communication, Planning, Modeling, construction, deployment. C. Analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance D. None of the above.
104. Who deliver the technical skills that are necessary to engineer for a product or an application?
A. Project managers B. Practitioners C. Customers D. End users
Answer: Practitioners
105. Project risk factor is considered in which model?
A. Spiral model. B. Waterfall model. C. Prototyping model D. None of the above.
Answer: Spiral model.
106. What is a child window that contains message for the user and request for some action to be taken?
A. Dialogue box B. Text-Box C. Check-Box D. Radio Button
Answer: Dialogue box
107. A Project can be characterized as _____ .
A. Every project may not have a unique and distinct goal. B. Project is routine activity or day-to-day operations. C. Project does not comes with a start time and end time. D. All mentioned above. e. None of the above.
Answer: None of the above.
108. Which model is not suitable for large software projects but good one for learning and experimenting?
A. Big Bang model B. Spiral model C. Iterative model D. Waterfall model
Answer: Big Bang model
109. Which includes modifications and updations done in order to correct or fix the problems, that are either discovered by user or concluded by user error reports?
A. Perfective maintenance B. Adaptive maintenance C. Corrective maintenance D. Preventive maintenance
Answer: Corrective maintenance
110. Boehm suggests an approach that addresses project objectives, milestones and schedules, responsibilities, management and technical approaches and required resources, This principle is called as ______ .
A. W3HH principle B. WHO principle C. W5HH principle D. None of the above.
Answer: W5HH principle
111. The objective for formal technical review is to core errors in software work products.
A. True B. False
Answer: False
112. CASE tools are set of automated software application programs, that are not used to support, accelerate and smoothen the SDLC activities.
A. Yes B. No
Answer: No
113. From the following give three major categories of risk, 1. Schedule risk 2. Project risk 3. Technical risk 4. Business risk
A. 1,2 and 3 B. 2,3 and 4 C. 1,2 and 4 D. 1,3 and 4
Answer: 2,3 and 4
114. Activities and action taken on the data are represented by circle or round-edged rectangles is called _____ .
A. Entities B. Process C. Data storage D. Data flow
Answer: Process
115. The six sigma for software engineering what gives the existing process and its output to determine the current quality performance?
A. Define B. Analyze C. Measure D. None of the above
Answer: Measure
116. Which tools are helpful in all the stages of SDLC, for requirement gathering to testing and documentation?
A. Upper case tools B. Lower case tools C. Integrated case tools D. None of the above
Answer: Integrated case tools
117. OOD languages provide a mechanism where methods performing similar tasks but vary in arguments, and that can be assigned to the same name is called _____ .
A. Classes B. Object C. Polymorphism D. Encapsulation
Answer: Polymorphism
118. Abbreviate the term SMI.
A. Software Maturity Index B. Software Model Instruction C. Software Maturity Instruction D. Software Model Index
Answer: Software Maturity Index
119. What computer-based system can have a profound effect on the design that is chosen and also the implementation approach will be applied?
A. Scenario-based elements B. Class-based elements C. Behavioural elements D. Flow-oriented elements
Answer: Behavioural elements
120. SRS is a document created by system analyst after the requirements are collected from various stakeholders.
A. Yes B. No
Answer: Yes
121. Which structures in Organizational Paradigms on a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team members?
A. Closed paradigm B. Open paradigm C. Random paradigm D. Synchronous paradigm
Answer: Random paradigm
122. Give the name to diagram that represents the flow of activities described by the use cases and at the same time the captors are involved in UML .
A. State diagram B. Swim lane diagram C. Activity diagram D. Component diagram
Answer: Swim lane diagram
123. Which phase is refers to the support phase of software development?
A. Acceptance Phase. B. Testing. C. Maintenance. D. None of the above.
Answer: Maintenance.
124. Which model is also called as the classic life cycle or the Waterfall model?
A. Iterative Development B. Linear Sequential Development C. RAD Model. D. Incremental Development
Answer: Linear Sequential Development
125. What is the average effective global activity rate in an evolving E-type system is invariant over the lifetime of the product?
A. Self-regulation B. Reducing quality C. Feedback systems D. Organizational stability
Answer: Organizational stability
126. Which document is created by system analyst after the requirements are collected from Various stakeholders?
A. Software requirement specification B. Software requirement validation C. Feasibility study D. Requirement Gathering
Answer: Software requirement specification
127. Which is focused towards the goal of the organization?
A. Feasibility study B. Requirement gathering C. Software requirement specification D. Software requirement validation
Answer: Feasibility study
128. The architectural model is derived from which of these sources?
A. Information about the application domain for the software to be built; B. Specific requirements model elements such as data flow diagrams or analysis classes, their relationships and collaborations for the problem at hand; C. The availability of architectural styles and patterns.
A. Both A & B B. Both B & C C. Both A & C D. All mentioned above
Answer: All mentioned above
129. What is the correctness, completeness, and consistency of the requirements model will have a strong influence on the quality of all work products that follow?
A. Requirement quality B. Design quality C. Code quality D. Quality control effectiveness
Answer: Requirement quality
130. An entity in ER Model is a real world being, which has some properties called_____ .
A. Attributes B. Relationship C. Domain D. None of the above
Answer: Attributes
131. Waht is the most common measure for correctness?
A. Defects per KLOC B. Errors per KLOC C. $ per KLOC D. Pages of documentation per KLOC
Answer: Defects per KLOC
132. Which documentation works as a key tool for software designer, developer and their test team is to carry out their respective tasks?
A. Requirement documentation B. User documentation C. Software design documentation D. Technical documentation
Answer: Requirement documentation
133. Which tools are used in implementation,testing and maintenance?
A. Upper case tools B. Integrated case tools C. Lower case tools D. None of the above
Answer: Lower case tools
134. Which risk gives the degree of uncertainty and the project schedule will be maintained so that the product will be delivered in time?
A. Business risk B. Technical risk C. Schedule risk D. Project risk
Answer: Schedule risk
135. You are working in CareerRide as a project manager. Company wants to develop a project. You are also involved in planning team. What will be your first step in project planning?
A. Establish the objectives and scope of the product. B. Determine the project constraints. C. Select the team. D. None of the above.
Answer: Establish the objectives and scope of the product.
136. Configuration management is an essential part of the system maintenance. It is aided with version control tools to control versions, semi-version or patch management.
A. True B. False
Answer: True
137. Which model is also known as Verification and validation model?
A. Waterfall model B. Big Bang model C. V-model D. Spiral model
Answer: V-model
138. Software project management is the process of managing all activities that are involved in software development, they are _____ .
A. Time B. Cost C. Quality management D. All mentioned above
Answer: All mentioned above
139. A small picture representing an associated application, what does it mean?
A. Icon B. Window C. Menu D. Cursor
Answer: Icon
140. What is the meaning of requirement elicitation in software engineering?
A. Gathering of requirement. B. Understanding of requirement. C. Getting the requirements from client. D. All of the above.
Answer: All of the above.
141. Which of the following is/are Project Estimation Technique?
A. Empirical Estimation Technique. B. Heuristic Estimation Technique. C. Analytical Estimation Technique. D. All of the above.
Answer: All of the above.
142. The maximum number of objects that can participate in a relationship is called________ .
A. Cardinality B. Attributes C. Operations D. Transformers
Answer: Cardinality
143. What is legacy system?
A. A legacy system refers to newer version of software. B. A legacy system refers to outdated application software that is used instead of available upgraded versions. C. A legacy system always devolved by advance technology. D. None of the above.
Answer: A legacy system refers to outdated application software that is used instead of available upgraded versions.
144. Which of the following cannot be applied with the software according to Software Engineering Layers?
A. Process B. Methods C. Manufacturing D. None of the above.
Answer: Manufacturing
145. Which software is used to control products and systems for the consumer and industrial markets?
A. System software B. Artificial intelligence software C. Embedded software D. Engineering and scientific software
Answer: Embedded software
146. Which software enables the program to adequately manipulate information?
A. Instructions B. Data Structures C. Documents D. All of the above
Answer: Data Structures
147. Which coding element is generally omitted at the end of line?
A. Naming conventions B. Identifying C. Whitespace D. Operators
Answer: Whitespace
148. The rules of writing ‘if-then-else’, ‘case-switch’, ‘while-until’ and ‘for’ control flow statements are called _____ .
A. Comments B. Functions C. Line length and wrapping D. Control Structure
Answer: Control Structure
149. If an application allows executing multiple instances of itself, they appear on the screen as separate windows are called ______ .
A. Window B. Tabs C. Menu D. Cursor
Answer: Tabs
150. Match the List 1 to List 2 and choose the correct option.
1. Requirement Elicitation ——- A. Module Development and integration. 2. Design——————————B. Analysis 3. Implementation——————C. Structure and behavioral 4. Maintenance ——————— D. Performance tuning.
A. 1-c , 2-a , 3-d , 4-b B. 1-c , 2-a , 3-b , 4-d C. 1-a , 2-c , 3-d , 4-b D. 1-b , 2-c , 3-a , 4-d
Answer: 1-b , 2-c , 3-a , 4-d
151. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?
A. Unit testing B. Regression testing C. Sandwich testing D. Thread-based testing
ANSWER: Thread-based testing
152. In which elicitation process the developers discuss with the client and end users and know their expectations from the software?
A. Requirement gathering B. Organizing requirements C. Negotiation & discussion D. Documentation
ANSWER: Requirement gathering
153. If requirements are easily understandable and defined then which model is best suited?
A. Spiral model B. Waterfall model C. Prototyping model D. None of the above
ANSWER: Waterfall model
154. Which Software-end factors affecting maintenance Cost?
A. Structure of Software Program B. Programming Language C. Dependence on external environment D. All mentioned above e. None of the above
ANSWER: All mentioned above
155. Software quality assurance is an umbrella activity.
A. True B. False
ANSWER: True
156. Software process and improvement are assessed by ____.
A. ISO 9000 B. ISO 9001 C. SPICE (ISO/IEC15504) D. Both B and C
ANSWER: Both B and C
157. CASE Tool stands for.
A. Computer Aided Software Engineering B. Component Aided Software Engineering C. Constructive Aided Software Engineering D. Computer Analysis Software Engineering
ANSWER: Computer Aided Software Engineering
158. Software is defined as ____ .
A. Instructions B. Data Structures C. Documents D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
159. During security testing the tester plays the role of the individual who desires to______ .
A. Penetrates the system B. Penetrates the listener C. Both A & B D. None of the above
ANSWER: Penetrates the system
160. Which of the following is not a section in the standard for SQA plans recommended by IEEE?
A. Budget B. Time C. People D. None of the above
ANSWER: Budget
161. Which box specifies the behavior of a system or a part of a system?
A. State box B. Clear box C. Black box D. None of the above
ANSWER: Black box
162. FAST stands for ______ .
A. Facilitated Application Software Technique. B. Functional Application Software Technique. C. Facilitated Application Specification Technique. D. None of the above.
163. Which may be estimated either in terms of KLOC (Kilo Line of Code. or by calculating number of function points in the software?
A. Time estimation B. Effort estimation C. Cost estimation D. Software size estimation
ANSWER: Software size estimation
164. SDLC Models are adopted as per requirements of development process. It may vary Software-to-software to ensuring which model is suitable.
A. True B. False
ANSWER: True
165. The always growing and adapting nature of software hugely depends upon the environment in which user works in ____________ .
A. Cost B. Dynamic Nature C. Quality Management D. Scalability
ANSWER: Dynamic Nature
166. When the customer may ask for new features or functions in the software, what does it mean in Software maintenance?
A. Host modifications B. Client requirements C. Market conditions D. Organization changes
ANSWER: Client requirements
167. Reliability is measured by considering processing speed, response time, resource consumption, throughput, and efficiency.
A. True B. False
ANSWER: False
168. Abbreviate the term CASE.
A. Computer Authorized Software Engineering B. Computer Aided Software Engineering C. Common Authorized Software Engineering D. Common Aided Software Engineering
ANSWER: Computer Aided Software Engineering
169. What is described by means of DFDs as studied earlier and represented in algebraic form?
A. Data flow B. Data storage C. Data Structures D. Data elements
ANSWER: Data flow
170. Which metrics are derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity measures by considering the size of the software that has been produced?
A. Size oriented B. Function-Oriented C. Object-Oriented D. Use-case-Oriented
ANSWER: Size oriented
171. What are the signs that a software project is in trouble?
A. The product scope is poorly defineD. B. Deadlines are unrealistiC. C. Changes are managed poorly. D. All of the above.
ANSWER: All of the above.
172. Application that generate a dialogue to get confirmation from user and to delete a file it is an example for _____ .
A. Radio-Button B. Text-box C. Check-box D. Dialogue box
ANSWER: Dialogue box
173. What is used for implementing the changes in existing or new requirements of user in software maintenance?
A. Preventive maintenance B. Perfective maintenance C. Corrective D. Adaptive
ANSWER: Perfective maintenance
174. Lehman has given eight laws for software evolution and he divided software into three categories. In which category software works strictly according to defined specifications and solutions.
A. Static-type B. Embedded-type C. Practical-type D. None of the above
ANSWER: Embedded-type
175. Computer software is a complete package, which includes software program, its documentation and user guide on how to use the software.
A. True B. False
ANSWER: True
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